Download CompTIA Security plus.SY0-701.PassLeader.2025-03-07.376q.vcex

Vendor: CompTIA
Exam Code: SY0-701
Exam Name: CompTIA Security plus
Date: Mar 07, 2025
File Size: 6 MB
Downloads: 8

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Question 1
Select the appropriate attack and remediation from each drop-down list to label the corresponding attack with its remediation.
INSTRUCTIONS
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Question 2
A security analyst is reviewing alerts in the SIEM related to potential malicious network traffic coming from an employee's corporate laptop. The security analyst has determined that additional data about the executable running on the machine is necessary to continue the investigation.
Which of the following logs should the analyst use as a data source?
  1. Application
  2. IPS/IDS
  3. Network
  4. Endpoint
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
Endpoint logs are the most suitable data source for gathering additional information about the executable running on the employee's corporate laptop. These logs contain detailed information about processes, executables, and activities occurring on the endpoint, enabling the security analyst to understand the behavior of the executable and its potential impact on the system and network.
Endpoint logs are the most suitable data source for gathering additional information about the executable running on the employee's corporate laptop. These logs contain detailed information about processes, executables, and activities occurring on the endpoint, enabling the security analyst to understand the behavior of the executable and its potential impact on the system and network.
Question 3
A cyber operations team informs a security analyst about a new tactic malicious actors are using to compromise networks.
SIEM alerts have not yet been configured. Which of the following best describes what the security analyst should do to identify this behavior?
  1. Digital forensics
  2. E-discovery
  3. Incident response
  4. Threat hunting
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
Threat hunting is the process of proactively searching for signs of malicious activity or compromise in a network, rather than waiting for alerts or indicators of compromise (IOCs) to appear. Threat hunting can help identify new tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) used by malicious actors, as well as uncover hidden or stealthy threats that may have evaded detection by security tools. Threat hunting requires a combination of skills, tools, and methodologies, such as hypothesis generation, data collection and analysis, threat intelligence, and incident response.Threat hunting can also help improve the security posture of an organization by providing feedback and recommendations for security improvements.
Threat hunting is the process of proactively searching for signs of malicious activity or compromise in a network, rather than waiting for alerts or indicators of compromise (IOCs) to appear. Threat hunting can help identify new tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) used by malicious actors, as well as uncover hidden or stealthy threats that may have evaded detection by security tools. Threat hunting requires a combination of skills, tools, and methodologies, such as hypothesis generation, data collection and analysis, threat intelligence, and incident response.
Threat hunting can also help improve the security posture of an organization by providing feedback and recommendations for security improvements.
Question 4
A company purchased cyber insurance to address items listed on the risk register. Which of the following strategies does this represent?
  1. Accept
  2. Transfer
  3. Mitigate
  4. Avoid
Correct answer: B
Explanation:
Transfer: Transferring a risk involves shifting some or all of the risk to another party, such as an insurance provider, through contractual agreements or financial arrangements. If the company purchases cyber insurance to address items listed on the risk register, it represents a risk transfer strategy. The company is transferring the financial burden of potential cyber incidents to the insurance provider, who will compensate the company for covered losses.Given the scenario described, the strategy represented by the company's purchase of cyber insurance to address items listed on the risk register is Transfer. The company is transferring some of the financial consequences of potential cyber incidents to the insurance provider through the purchase of insurance coverage.
Transfer: Transferring a risk involves shifting some or all of the risk to another party, such as an insurance provider, through contractual agreements or financial arrangements. If the company purchases cyber insurance to address items listed on the risk register, it represents a risk transfer strategy. The company is transferring the financial burden of potential cyber incidents to the insurance provider, who will compensate the company for covered losses.
Given the scenario described, the strategy represented by the company's purchase of cyber insurance to address items listed on the risk register is Transfer. The company is transferring some of the financial consequences of potential cyber incidents to the insurance provider through the purchase of insurance coverage.
Question 5
A security administrator would like to protect data on employees' laptops. Which of the following encryption techniques should the security administrator use?
  1. Partition
  2. Asymmetric
  3. Full disk
  4. Database
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
Full disk encryption (FDE) encrypts all the data on a disk drive, protecting the data at rest on the entire laptop, including the operating system, applications, and user files. This ensures that if a laptop is lost or stolen, the data cannot be accessed without the correct decryption key.
Full disk encryption (FDE) encrypts all the data on a disk drive, protecting the data at rest on the entire laptop, including the operating system, applications, and user files. This ensures that if a laptop is lost or stolen, the data cannot be accessed without the correct decryption key.
Question 6
Which of the following security control types does an acceptable use policy best represent?
  1. Detective
  2. Compensating
  3. Corrective
  4. Preventive
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
Preventive - an acceptable use policy enforces rules to users to use company resources.example - company A states that in order to access files in the company server you must connect to your company VPN when working from home. This prevents you from connecting from an insecure network.
Preventive - an acceptable use policy enforces rules to users to use company resources.
example - company A states that in order to access files in the company server you must connect to your company VPN when working from home. This prevents you from connecting from an insecure network.
Question 7
An IT manager informs the entire help desk staff that only the IT manager and the help desk lead will have access to the administrator console of the help desk software. Which of the following security techniques is the IT manager setting up?
  1. Hardening
  2. Employee monitoring
  3. Configuration enforcement
  4. Least privilege
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
The principle of least privilege is a security concept that limits access to resources to the minimum level needed for a user, a program, or a device to perform a legitimate function. It is a cybersecurity best practice that protects high-value data and assets from compromise or insider threat. Least privilege can be applied to different abstraction layers of a computing environment, such as processes, systems, or connected devices. However, it is rarely implemented in practice.In this scenario, the IT manager is setting up the principle of least privilege by restricting access to the administrator console of the help desk software to only two authorized users: the IT manager and the help desk lead. This way, the IT manager can prevent unauthorized or accidental changes to the software configuration, data, or functionality by other help desk staff.The other help desk staff will only have access to the normal user interface of the software, which is sufficient for them to perform their job functions.The other options are not correct. Hardening is the process of securing a system by reducing its surface of vulnerability, such as by removing unnecessary software, changing default passwords, or disabling unnecessary services. Employee monitoring is the surveillance of workers' activity,such as by tracking web browsing, application use, keystrokes, or screenshots. Configuration enforcement is the process of ensuring that a system adheres to a predefined set of security settings, such as by applying a patch, a policy, or a template.
The principle of least privilege is a security concept that limits access to resources to the minimum level needed for a user, a program, or a device to perform a legitimate function. It is a cybersecurity best practice that protects high-value data and assets from compromise or insider threat. Least privilege can be applied to different abstraction layers of a computing environment, such as processes, systems, or connected devices. However, it is rarely implemented in practice.
In this scenario, the IT manager is setting up the principle of least privilege by restricting access to the administrator console of the help desk software to only two authorized users: the IT manager and the help desk lead. This way, the IT manager can prevent unauthorized or accidental changes to the software configuration, data, or functionality by other help desk staff.
The other help desk staff will only have access to the normal user interface of the software, which is sufficient for them to perform their job functions.
The other options are not correct. Hardening is the process of securing a system by reducing its surface of vulnerability, such as by removing unnecessary software, changing default passwords, or disabling unnecessary services. Employee monitoring is the surveillance of workers' activity,
such as by tracking web browsing, application use, keystrokes, or screenshots. Configuration enforcement is the process of ensuring that a system adheres to a predefined set of security settings, such as by applying a patch, a policy, or a template.
Question 8
Which of the following roles, according to the shared responsibility model, is responsible for securing the company's database in an IaaS model for a cloud environment?
  1. Client
  2. Third-party vendor
  3. Cloud provider
  4. DBA
Correct answer: A
Explanation:
According to the shared responsibility model, the client and the cloud provider have different roles and responsibilities for securing the cloud environment, depending on the service model. In an IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) model, the cloud provider is responsible for securing the physical infrastructure, such as the servers, storage, and network devices, while the client is responsible for securing the operating systems, applications, and data that run on the cloud infrastructure. Therefore, the client is responsible for securing the company's database in an IaaS model for a cloud environment, as the database is an application that stores data. The client can use various security controls, such as encryption, access control, backup, and auditing, to protect the database from unauthorized access, modification, or loss. The third-party vendor and the DBA (Database Administrator) are not roles defined by the shared responsibility model, but they may be involved in the implementation or management of the database security.
According to the shared responsibility model, the client and the cloud provider have different roles and responsibilities for securing the cloud environment, depending on the service model. In an IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) model, the cloud provider is responsible for securing the physical infrastructure, such as the servers, storage, and network devices, while the client is responsible for securing the operating systems, applications, and data that run on the cloud infrastructure. Therefore, the client is responsible for securing the company's database in an IaaS model for a cloud environment, as the database is an application that stores data. The client can use various security controls, such as encryption, access control, backup, and auditing, to protect the database from unauthorized access, modification, or loss. The third-party vendor and the DBA (Database Administrator) are not roles defined by the shared responsibility model, but they may be involved in the implementation or management of the database security.
Question 9
A client asked a security company to provide a document outlining the project, the cost, and the completion time frame. 
Which of the following documents should the company provide to the client?
  1. MSA
  2. SLA
  3. BPA
  4. SOW
Correct answer: D
Explanation:
An ISOW is a document that outlines the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to provide a service to a client. ISOW stands for Information Security Operations Work, and it is a type of contract that specifies the scope, deliverables, milestones, and payment terms of a security project. An ISOW is usually used for one-time or short-term projects that have a clear and defined objective and outcome. For example, an ISOW can be used for a security assessment, a penetration test, a security audit, or a security training. The other options are not correct because they are not documents that outline the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to provide a service to a client. A MSA is a master service agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the general terms and conditions for a long-term or ongoing relationship between a security company and a client. A MSA does not specify the details of each individual project, but rather sets the framework for future projects that will be governed by separate statements of work (SOWs). A SLA is a service level agreement, which is a type of contract that defines the quality and performance standards for a security service provided by a security company to a client. A SLA usually includes the metrics, targets, responsibilities, and penalties for measuring and ensuring the service level. A BPA is a business partnership agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the roles and expectations for a strategic alliance between two or more security companies that collaborate to provide a joint service to a client. A BPA usually covers the objectives, benefits, risks, and obligations of the partnership.
An ISOW is a document that outlines the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to provide a service to a client. ISOW stands for Information Security Operations Work, and it is a type of contract that specifies the scope, deliverables, milestones, and payment terms of a security project. An ISOW is usually used for one-time or short-term projects that have a clear and defined objective and outcome. For example, an ISOW can be used for a security assessment, a penetration test, a security audit, or a security training. The other options are not correct because they are not documents that outline the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to provide a service to a client. A MSA is a master service agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the general terms and conditions for a long-term or ongoing relationship between a security company and a client. A MSA does not specify the details of each individual project, but rather sets the framework for future projects that will be governed by separate statements of work (SOWs). A SLA is a service level agreement, which is a type of contract that defines the quality and performance standards for a security service provided by a security company to a client. A SLA usually includes the metrics, targets, responsibilities, and penalties for measuring and ensuring the service level. A BPA is a business partnership agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the roles and expectations for a strategic alliance between two or more security companies that collaborate to provide a joint service to a client. A BPA usually covers the objectives, benefits, risks, and obligations of the partnership.
Question 10
A security team is reviewing the findings in a report that was delivered after a third party performed a penetration test. One of the findings indicated that a web application form field is vulnerable to cross-site scripting. 
Which of the following application security techniques should the security analyst recommend the developer implement to prevent this vulnerability?
  1. Secure cookies
  2. Version control
  3. Input validation
  4. Code signing
Correct answer: C
Explanation:
Input validation is a technique that checks the user input for any malicious or unexpected data before processing it by the web application. Input validation can prevent cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks, which exploit the vulnerability of a web application to execute malicious scripts in the browser of a victim. XSS attacks can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the web application and its users. Input validation can be implemented on both the client-side and the server-side, but server-side validation is more reliable and secure. Input validation can use various methods, such as whitelisting, blacklisting, filtering, escaping, encoding, and sanitizing the input data.
Input validation is a technique that checks the user input for any malicious or unexpected data before processing it by the web application. Input validation can prevent cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks, which exploit the vulnerability of a web application to execute malicious scripts in the browser of a victim. XSS attacks can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the web application and its users. Input validation can be implemented on both the client-side and the server-side, but server-side validation is more reliable and secure. Input validation can use various methods, such as whitelisting, blacklisting, filtering, escaping, encoding, and sanitizing the input data.
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